simplymariex simplymariex
  • 02-04-2018
  • Mathematics
contestada

Is it true that since sin2x + cos2x = 1, then sin(x) + cos(x) = 1? Explain your answer.

Respuesta :

jimthompson5910 jimthompson5910
  • 02-04-2018
No it is not true because plugging in something like x = pi/4 radians (equivalent to 45 degrees) leads to the left side not being equal to 1. The left side will simplify to sqrt(2). So the equation is not true when x = pi/4 radians. There are infinitely other counter examples to use; however, x = 0 or x = pi/2 radians will actually be bad values to pick so avoid those.


Answer Link

Otras preguntas

What were the values of Whelton Academy, and how were they maintained?
How do people use bromine?
Planetesimals are made from A. Rock B. Gas C. Stars D. Clouds
What value of y will make the equation y/2 − 2 = 3 true?
A 1000kg car has 50000 joules of kinetic energy. What is the speed?
Order the group of quadratic functions from widest to narrowest graph y=3x^2,y=x^2,y=2x^2
what have you learned about young fortinbras personality even though
which best describes how the common cold spreads in the human body? A. Bacteria pass DNA to viruses B. Bacteria replicate inside respiratory cells C. Viruses pa
Capitalism has led many countries to an improved
What are the forces that inhibit European unification and what have been the results to date?